First Assistant Engineer, Revision & Practice Exams

Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the illustration may be the result of __________. Illustration MO-0110

1. improper operation of the brine pump
2. neglecting to latch the dump valve
3. neglecting to close the shell vent ✓
4. improper operation of the distillate pump

If a reverse osmosis fresh water generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the freshwater outlet, what should be done?

1. The membrane modules should be flushed and cleaned. ✓
2. The post-treatment sterilizer should be serviced.
3. The pre-treatment chemical doser should be serviced.
4. The pre-filters should be serviced by cleaning or replacement.

What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution piping for a potable water system?

1. Use of storage type hot water heaters only.
2. Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only.
3. Use of hot water recirculation loops. ✓
4. Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.

On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery space sea water cooling systems?

1. A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily while underway. ✓
2. A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water.
3. A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water.
4. A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily while underway.

In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?

1. Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with handwheel operated wildcat band brakes being set.
2. Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in other than the neutral position. ✓
3. Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches being disengaged.
4. Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in the neutral position.

As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?

1. The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged. ✓
2. The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
3. The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
4. The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.

In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should _________.

1. be arranged to develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10" of mercury ✓
2. be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vacuum
3. be provided with three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction line to prevent pump starvation should the strainer become fouled
4. be taken directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers

When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be __________.

1. descaled by using a pickling solution ✓
2. hydrostatically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure
3. cleaned using a water-based detergent
4. all of the above

If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will __________.

1. dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system
2. find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened ✓
3. be successful every time
4. cause the system to vibrate

A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of its stroke, then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause?

1. The rod wiper is jammed in the cushion spear.
2. The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose.
3. The cushion adjustment needle valve is open too far.
4. The cushion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiently. ✓

If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil system, what statement is true concerning the vertical arrangement of the lube oil tanks?

1. The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both above the points of lubrication.
2. The lube oil gravity tank is below the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump is above the points of lubrication.
3. The lube oil gravity tank is above the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump is below the points of lubrication. ✓
4. The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both below the points of lubrication.

Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line?

1. Canister
2. Simplex
3. Duplex ✓
4. Bypass

Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily-water separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175

1. The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges. ✓
2. The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode.
3. The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure.
4. The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.

In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute by __________. Illustration GS-0012

1. good metal-to-metal contact
2. sealant between the two parts
3. an ptfe/glass fiber reinforced gasket ✓
4. compressing the packing rings

Which of the tolerances listed is allowed on the outside diameter of the bushing illustrated? Illustration GS- 0017

1. 0.0005 inch ✓
2. 0.002 inch
3. 0.060 inch
4. 1.6015 inches

What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing thruster and a podded propulsor?

1. With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded propulsor the prime mover is located outside the hull. ✓
2. With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the propulsor is not steerable.
3. With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded propulsor the prime mover is located inside the hull.
4. With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the propulsor is steerable.

An important communication tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps better ensure that managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active listening?

1. Active listening is when you maintain eye contact with the employee the whole time they are speaking.
2. Active listening is when you listen to an employee with undivided attention and not be distracted.
3. Active listening is when you make a response that states what you have heard from the employee. ✓
4. Active listening is when you allow the employee to finish what they are saying before speaking.

Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a delegating leadership style?

1. Where the employees are able and willing or confident. ✓
2. Where the employees are able but unwilling or insecure.
3. Where the employees are unable and unwilling or insecure.
4. Where the employees are unable but willing or confident.

As a manager, one of the practices of positive confrontation reduction skills essential to conflict resolution involves a type of listening. What type of listening would be most effective in resolving a conflict?

1. Active listening ✓
2. Defensive listening
3. Passive listening
4. Reactive listening

Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew member by position AND name?

1. Station bill
2. Muster list ✓
3. Fire control plan
4. Pre-fire plan

When preparing/writing shipyard items for your vessel's upcoming dry-docking period, what would you consider as an item regarding CuNi salt water cooling systems/piping?

1. Identify in your item all steel waster piece pipe spools in the CuNi systems and require them to be removed and replaced. ✓
2. This item should be of no concern since you have not experienced system piping degradation/leaks.
3. Remove certain designated CuNi piping sections for inspection.
4. Replace all bonding pieces/wires between all CuNi system flanges.

One is slated to be a senior officer of a new vessel and is to participate in the 'Builder's Sea Trials'. What would you consider your responsibilities when asked to witness scheduled tests?

1. Observe, report any possible deficiencies to shipyard representatives and regulatory body representatives.
2. Observe and convey your comments of any possible deficiencies to the shipyard representative conducting the test.
3. Observe, report any possible deficiencies to the representatives of the regulatory bodies present.
4. Observe, note any deficiencies you may feel exist and convey them to your vessel owner's representatives. ✓

According 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment, what statement is true concerning the opening up of sea chests, sea valves, sea strainers, and emergency bilge suction valves?

1. Sea chests, sea valves, sea strainers, and emergency bilge suction valves are required to be opened annually while the vessel is in dry-dock.
2. Sea chests, sea valves, sea strainers, and emergency bilge suction valves are required to be opened every periodic inspection while the vessel is in dry-dock.
3. Sea chests, sea valves, sea strainers, and emergency bilge suction valves are required to be opened every 5 years while the vessel is in dry-dock. ✓
4. Sea chests, sea valves, sea strainers, and emergency bilge suction valves are required to be opened every 10 years while the vessel is in dry-dock.

According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment, what would be the basis for conducting tests and inspections of a feedwater regulator for a boiler as conducted by a marine inspector during a periodic ship inspection?

1. The marine inspector conducts any tests and inspections as necessary to check for safe operation of the feedwater regulator. ✓
2. The marine inspector conducts a pneumatic pressure test of the feedwater line including the feedwater regulator.
3. The marine inspector conducts both an internal and an external inspection of the feedwater regulator.
4. The marine inspector conducts a hydrostatic test of the feedwater line including the feedwater regulator.

As Chief Engineer you join a vessel enrolled in Continuous Machinery Survey. Approximately what percent of the machinery should be surveyed per year throughout the Special Survey cycle?

1. 10%
2. 20% ✓
3. 25%
4. 50%

If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to keeping gearboxes, turbine casings, and engine crankcases dry and free of moisture?

1. A combination of mechanical circulation of air and humidification should be used.
2. A combination of mechanical circulation of air and dehumidification should be used. ✓
3. A combination of an absence of air circulation and humidification should be used.
4. A combination of an absence of air circulation and dehumidification should be used.

Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing fire emergency skills training?

1. Direct observation and reviewing critiques of the execution of shipboard fire and emergency drills performed by the existing crew. ✓
2. Reviewing marine casualty and damage reports attributed to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the past.
3. Analyzing insurance premium costs relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the past.
4. Analyzing statistical data collected relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the past.

What is the critical first step that must be carried out before executing a plan?

1. Assessing present and future conditions affecting achievement of the plan.
2. Identifying present and future conditions affecting achievement of the plan.
3. Developing a systematic approach to achievement of the plan.
4. Setting an objective or goal to be achieved by the plan. ✓

You are installing a new refrigeration system aboard your vessel. The system comes with a 240 psi rupture disk, a safety valve set at 240 psi and a pressure gauge connection and gauge. In accordance with 46 CFR, what is the preferred setup for installing the equipment on the condenser?

1. The rupture disk, safety valve, and pressure gauge are all piped in parallel.
2. Pressure gauge closest to the condenser, then safety valve then rupture disk in series after the pressure gauge.
3. Safety valve closest to the condenser, then pressure gage then rupture disk in series after the safety valve. ✓
4. Rupture disk closest to the condenser, then pressure gauge then safety valve in series after the rupture disk.

Resonant vibrations, which can cause machinery failure, occur when which of the following conditions happen?

1. The machinery is operated at the natural frequency with no external forces in play.
2. The natural frequency of the machinery is the same as the free vibration frequency.
3. A forced frequency is placed on a piece of operating machinery.
4. The frequency of an external vibration is the same as one of the natural frequencies of the machinery. ✓

What type of maintenance system would be associated with accomplishing maintenance after a machinery breakdown?

1. Predictive maintenance system
2. Planned maintenance system
3. Corrective maintenance system ✓
4. Condition-based maintenance system

If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?

1. the evaporator will be overfed with liquid refrigerant
2. the suction line of the compressor will be abnormally cold
3. the suction line of the compressor will be abnormally warm ✓
4. the heat removal capacity of the evaporator will increase

When a refrigeration system is being topped off with a small amount of refrigerant through the low side with the compressor running, what should be done?

1. the suction service valve must be back seated
2. the refrigerant charging cylinder should be turned upside down
3. the refrigerant should be charged into the system as a vapor ✓
4. the discharge service valve must be front seated

What could cause a lower efficiency and a higher bypass factor for an air conditioning cooling coil?

1. Corrosion wasting away large sections of the fins attached to the cooling coil. ✓
2. Chemically cleaning the coil.
3. An increase in ambient pressure and temperature.
4. Using material with a higher thermal expansion ratio.

On a boiler safety valve, the blowdown adjusting ring is locked in place by a __________.

1. locknut
2. set screw ✓
3. wire seal
4. cotter pin

What is the primary operational difference between a nozzle reaction safety valve and a huddling chamber safety valve?

1. The difference in valve relieving capacities.
2. The manner in which steam pressure causes initial valve opening.
3. The principle by which blowdown is accomplished. ✓
4. The manner in which lifting pressure is adjusted.

When operating under constant load, the superheated steam temperature may rise above normal if the __________.

1. excess air is too low
2. feedwater temperature is too high
3. boiler is priming
4. feedwater temperature is too low ✓

Rapid fluctuation in the superheater temperature of a steady steaming boiler indicates __________.

1. improper positioning of superheater fires
2. leaky desuperheater tubes
3. moisture carryover ✓
4. leaky superheater tubes

In a closed feed and water cycle, which of the conditions listed could prevent vacuum from reaching the desired level?

1. Steam pressure to air ejectors maintained at 10 psig above designed supply pressure.
2. Condensate recirculating back to the condenser during maneuvering.
3. Steam leaking from the turbine glands.
4. Marine growth on the cooling water side of the main condenser. ✓

Scale in the air ejector first-stage nozzle could cause a decrease in the __________.

1. low pressure turbine exhaust temperature
2. air ejector steam supply pressure
3. condensing temperature in the condenser
4. condenser vacuum ✓

Which of the listed systems would be a potential source for the high-pressure drain system?

1. Fuel oil tank heating coils
2. Steam systems operating in excess of 150 psi ✓
3. Galley steam tables
4. Laundry steam pressing machines

When burning fuel oil in a boiler, a high CO2 content is desired in the stack gas because __________.

1. efficient combustion is indicated even though the heat liberated is less than the heat produced by burning to CO
2. less excess air is required to produce CO2 than CO
3. efficient combustion is indicated and the heat liberated is equal to the heat produced by the formation of CO
4. more heat is liberated by the production of CO2 than CO ✓

The absence of carbon monoxide in the flue gas of a boiler indicates __________.

1. insufficient air
2. low carbon content of fuel
3. contaminated fuel oil
4. efficient combustion ✓

Which of the conditions listed can cause the flame of a mechanically atomized burner to be blown away from the burner tip when you are attempting to light off?

1. The secondary air cone is improperly adjusted.
2. Fuel oil viscosity is too low.
3. Insufficient excess air is being supplied to the furnace.
4. The diffuser is burned out. ✓

Testing boiler water for chloride content will indicate the amount of __________.

1. total alkalinity in the water
2. methyl orange that should be added
3. phosphates present in the water
4. dissolved salts from sea contamination ✓

When a boiler water test indicates a pH value of 6, you should __________.

1. chemically treat to raise the pH to normal level ✓
2. chemically treat to lower the pH to normal level
3. check the DC heater for possible malfunction
4. begin a continuous boiler blowdown

In a boiler automation system, if a burner fuel oil solenoid valve continually trips closed under normal steaming conditions, you should __________.

1. wedge the valve in the open position and report it to the chief engineer
2. wedge the valve in the open position and reduce the fuel oil pressure at that burner
3. bypass the solenoid valve and enter the fact in the logbook
4. secure the burner and determine the cause of the valve failure ✓

In the event of a failure of the pneumatic control system, a multi-element feedwater regulator is designed to operate as a __________.

1. constant-pressure regulator
2. manually controlled feedwater regulator ✓
3. constant-volume feedwater regulator
4. thermo-hydraulic feedwater regulator

The safety valve nominal size for propulsion boilers and superheaters must be not less than 1 1/2 inches and not more than 4 inches. The term 'nominal size' refers to the __________.

1. free spring length
2. diameter of the huddling chamber
3. diameter of the feather
4. diameter of the inlet opening ✓

While underway on a steam ship, the engineer on watch reports a loss of oil flow in the oil head tank bull's eye. Which of the following should be done?

1. Steps should be taken to immediately stop the shaft. ✓
2. The boiler auxiliary feed valve should be opened.
3. The lube oil head tank vent should be checked to ensure clear.
4. Nothing as oil overflowing in this glass is not normal.

A cloudy or milky appearing lube oil sample, taken from the main lubricating oil system could be caused by __________.

1. insufficient gland sealing steam
2. excessive gland sealing steam ✓
3. insufficient cooling water to the lube oil cooler
4. excessive cooling water to the lube oil cooler

If a line shaft bearing begins to overheat, the shaft speed should be reduced. If overheating persists, you should then __________.

1. flood the bearing with a higher viscosity oil to provide emergency lubrication and cooling
2. apply emergency cooling water externally to the bearing ✓
3. decrease lube oil pressure to the bearing
4. increase lube oil pressure to the bearing

A main propulsion diesel engine crankshaft bearing lacking sufficient 'crush', will __________.

1. tend to rotate with the journal ✓
2. be lubricated more easily than with sufficient crush
3. pound under load
4. have a thicker layer of babbitt

In a four-stroke cycle diesel engine, badly worn intake valve guides can cause excessive __________.

1. exhaust temperatures
2. cooling water temperatures
3. exhaust pressure
4. lube oil consumption ✓

In the illustrated engine, the main camshaft controls the timing of which of the following components? Illustration MO-0003

1. Intake valves
2. exhaust valves
3. fuel pumps ✓
4. all of the above

Telescopic pipes which are attached to water cooled pistons of large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engines are designed to ________.

1. overcome excessive crankcase pressure
2. prevent excessive lube oil temperature
3. allow piston cooling water to efficiently enter the piston despite its reciprocating piston motion without contaminating the engine lube oil ✓
4. prevent contamination of the cylinder cooling water with engine lube oil

If the speed of the propeller is 135 RPM, the speed of the engine camshaft shown in the illustration will be __________. Illustration MO-0003

1. 135 RPM ✓
2. 270 RPM
3. variable depending on the camshaft gear train gear ratios
4. variable depending on the ratio between engine rpm and propeller shaft rpm

High-speed, multi-cylinder, diesel engines commonly use counterweights placed opposite to the crankpins to __________.

1. prevent bearing loads
2. provide dynamic balance by equalizing centrifugal force ✓
3. counteract inertia forces
4. provide a balance of rocking couples around the crankshaft

Oil oxidation, as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is harmful to a diesel engine because __________.

1. lube oil viscosity is always decreased
2. corrosive by-products are usually formed ✓
3. large quantities of oil are consumed
4. oil foaming will occur

The time between injection and ignition of the fuel is known as __________.

1. afterburning ratio
2. injection lag
3. ignition delay ✓
4. turbulence lag

Fuel combustion in a diesel engine cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and should __________.

1. end at bottom dead center
2. end when fuel injection has been completed
3. continue through the afterburning period ✓
4. be completed exactly at top dead center

In the device shown in the illustration, the component lettered "A" is the __________. Illustration MO-0012

1. dirty oil input port ✓
2. seal water input port
3. light phase discharge port
4. heavy phase discharge port

Because of the close tolerances used in diesel engine fuel oil pumps, a worn plunger requires __________.

1. grinding the spare plunger to the barrel
2. replacing the plunger and the barrel ✓
3. highly polishing both the plunger and barrel
4. replacing plunger only

You are testing a closed fuel injection nozzle using a nozzle tester. A pressure slightly less than design valve opening pressure is applied. If no fuel appears at the spray tip, the __________.

1. nozzle orifices are too small
2. needle valve is operating properly ✓
3. needle valve spring is defective
4. nozzle orifices are eroded

A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine is an indication of a/an __________.

1. crankcase exhauster overload
2. overload on the intercooler
3. turbocharger malfunction or failure ✓
4. obstruction in the engine cylinders

In the illustrated auxiliary diesel engine governor, decreasing the distance between piece 6 and piece 10 will affect the engine by __________. Illustration MO-0094

1. decreasing the speed
2. increasing the speed ✓
3. increasing the speed droop setting
4. decreasing the overspeed trip setting

A schematic diagram of an isochronous hydraulic governor is shown in the illustration. When the load is removed the speed increases, and the __________. Illustration MO-0100

1. pilot valve (piece 10) moves upward ✓
2. proportioner piston (piece 25) moves upward
3. flyweights (piece 8 and 9) move inward and the pilot valve (piece 10) moves downward
4. balance piston (piece 22) moves downward

If a crankcase explosion due to a hot spot were to occur, the size of the explosion is dependent on which of the following?

1. The amount of water in the oil in the crankcase.
2. The ratio of oil mist to air in the crankcase. ✓
3. The amount of debris in the oil in the crankcase.
4. The temperature of the hot spot in the crankcase.

If a scavenging air space fire occurs on a slow-speed diesel engine and the engine is stopped, which of the following should be done to prevent distortion due to heat?

1. Open the engine to inspect the hot area.
2. Let the fire burn out naturally.
3. Engage and turn the engine with the jacking gear. ✓
4. Use CO2 to extinguish the fire and cool the engine.

The pressuretrol which is installed on an auxiliary boiler senses steam pressure changes and __________.

1. controls the flow of feedwater to the boiler
2. monitors the boiler high water level
3. secures the fires when a fusible plug burns out
4. automatically regulates the quantity of oil and air flow to the burner ✓

Two functions of the compressor stator vanes include which of the following?

1. Direct air flow to each rotor stage at the correct angle and deliver air to the combustor at the correct velocity and pressure. ✓
2. Direct air flow to rotor blades at the correct angle and are shaped to cause a velocity increase and a pressure decrease.
3. Direct air flow to rotor blades at the correct angle and are shaped to produce a velocity increase and maintain a constant pressure.
4. Direct air flow to rotor blades at the correct angle and are shaped to maintain a constant velocity and produce a pressure increase.

On marine gas turbines equipped with fuel oil nozzles as shown in the illustration, the minimum fuel oil manifold pressure for proper operation should be _________. Illustration GT-0005

1. 40-80 psi
2. 80-200 psi ✓
3. 200-300 psi
4. 300-500 psi

The turbine nozzles convert heat and pressure energy to velocity energy by means of which of the following?

1. Deflection process.
2. Convergent process. ✓
3. Divergent process.
4. Convergent-Divergent process.

Why are the high-pressure turbine blades generally of the impulse/reaction type?

1. To evenly distribute the stress over the entire blade.
2. To keep the tip pressure higher than the root pressure thereby preventing air flow over the tip.
3. To keep the tip pressure lower than the root pressure thereby preventing air flow over the tip.
4. Both A and B. ✓

Which of the following designs is the most satisfactory method for attaching turbine blades to the rotor disk?

1. Retaining ring design.
2. Fir-tree design. ✓
3. Pinning design.
4. Locking tab design.

Which of the following is an advantage of a single-shaft gas turbine engine compared to a split-shaft gas turbine engine?

1. Reversible
2. Fewer moving parts ✓
3. Lower starting torque
4. Better fuel economy

Boyle's law can best be defined as _________.

1. the volume of an enclosed gas varies inversely with the applied pressure, provided the temperature remains constant ✓
2. if the pressure is constant, the volume of an enclosed gas varies indirectly with absolute temperature
3. a body at rest tends to remain at rest
4. none of the above