First Assistant Engineer, Revision & Practice Exams

In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the undesirable characteristic in which the error of a control system oscillates with constant or increasing amplitude?

1. Saturation
2. Error
3. Deadband
4. Instability ✓

In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the derivative mode of control?

1. It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error.
2. It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of error over time.
3. It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the error is changing. ✓
4. It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain.

As a result of a load or setpoint change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of the error, what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control system?

1. The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and minimize the residual error. ✓
2. The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and maximize the residual error.
3. The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and minimize the residual error.
4. The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and maximize the residual error.

Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a ________.

1. split die
2. split washer or backup ring ✓
3. jack screw
4. ring gage

The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft starboard engine room bilge well suddenly fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first to determine the cause?

1. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected. ✓
2. Open the bilge pump for inspection.
3. Remove only the manifold valve to the affected bilge well.
4. Remove each of the manifold valves.

If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for all of the following EXCEPT __________.

1. the circuit breaker ✓
2. for leaks in the suction piping
3. relief valve is not properly seated
4. the suction strainer

Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator?

1. seawater feed temperature below 165°F
2. production of high salinity distillate
3. a leak in the first stage demister
4. a cracked distillate pump vent line ✓

The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the __________.

1. first-stage condenser
2. flash chamber
3. saltwater feed heater ✓
4. distillate cooler

If a reverse osmosis fresh water generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the freshwater outlet, what should be done?

1. The membrane modules should be flushed and cleaned. ✓
2. The post-treatment sterilizer should be serviced.
3. The pre-treatment chemical doser should be serviced.
4. The pre-filters should be serviced by cleaning or replacement.

It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air contamination?

1. The introduction of air via the makeup water. ✓
2. The introduction of air via the atmospheric drains tank vent.
3. The introduction of air with the convector steam supply.
4. The introduction of air via the expansion tank vent.

In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers. Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?

1. Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area with privacy assured. ✓
2. Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area without regard to being interrupted.
3. Conversing with the employee in your office with the employee sitting on the opposite side of the desk from you.
4. Conversing with the employee in the ship's office with the employee sitting on the opposite side of the desk from you.

An important communication tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps better ensure that managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active listening?

1. Active listening is when you maintain eye contact with the employee the whole time they are speaking.
2. Active listening is when you listen to an employee with undivided attention and not be distracted.
3. Active listening is when you make a response that states what you have heard from the employee. ✓
4. Active listening is when you allow the employee to finish what they are saying before speaking.

Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a delegating leadership style?

1. Where the employees are able and willing or confident. ✓
2. Where the employees are able but unwilling or insecure.
3. Where the employees are unable and unwilling or insecure.
4. Where the employees are unable but willing or confident.

Which of the following shipboard groups would be an example of an informal group?

1. Those officers and crew assigned to the engineering department of a ship.
2. Those officers and crew assigned to a particular ship.
3. Those officers and crew assigned to a maintenance task on a ship. ✓
4. Those officers and crew assigned to the safety committee of a ship.

As a manager, one of the practices of positive confrontation reduction skills essential to conflict resolution involves a type of listening. What type of listening would be most effective in resolving a conflict?

1. Active listening ✓
2. Defensive listening
3. Passive listening
4. Reactive listening

An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. Which statement is true concerning the fire control plan for a vessel?

1. The fire control plan is a set of written instructions and contains information for how to extinguish a fire in a particular space.
2. The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information for how to extinguish a fire in a particular space.
3. The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information on vessel arrangements and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting equipment. ✓
4. The fire control plan is a set of written descriptions for each deck of the vessel and contains information on vessel arrangement and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting equipment.

Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew member by position AND name?

1. Station bill
2. Muster list ✓
3. Fire control plan
4. Pre-fire plan

In planning for a fire and emergency drill, to insure drill success within the context of a comprehensive fire and emergency training program, what should be planned for?

1. The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire drill the location should be changed.
2. The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire drill the location should remain the same.
3. The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire drill the location should be changed. ✓
4. The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire drill the location should remain the same.

If the initial report or automatic fire detection equipment are insufficient to provide adequate information to properly size-up a fire, an exploratory survey team consisting of at least two people may be required for reconnaissance purposes. How should the survey team members be equipped?

1. Each survey team member should be wearing full protective gear and a self-contained breathing apparatus. ✓
2. At least one team member should be wearing full protective gear and at least one other team member should be wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus.
3. At least one team member should be wearing full protective gear and at least one other team member should be wearing a smoke filtering gas mask.
4. Each survey team member should be wearing full protective gear and a smoke filtering gas mask.

Boiler refractory firebrick is secured to the casing by __________.

1. high strength tensile fasteners
2. slots in the brick engaging anchor bolts ✓
3. studding on the waterwall tubes
4. fast drying plastic refractory mortar

On a boiler safety valve, the blowdown adjusting ring is locked in place by a __________.

1. locknut
2. set screw ✓
3. wire seal
4. cotter pin

What is the primary operational difference between a nozzle reaction safety valve and a huddling chamber safety valve?

1. The difference in valve relieving capacities.
2. The manner in which steam pressure causes initial valve opening.
3. The principle by which blowdown is accomplished. ✓
4. The manner in which lifting pressure is adjusted.

Which of the listed procedures is the most important factor to take into consideration when making repairs to the refractory surrounding the burner openings?

1. Finished repair surfaces must be smooth.
2. Plastic firebrick must be used.
3. All cracks must be completely filled.
4. Design refractory cone angle must be maintained. ✓

When water washing a boiler, the proper sequence for washing the sections should be the __________.

1. generating tubes, superheater, and then economizer
2. economizer, superheater, generating, and then screen tubes ✓
3. superheater, economizer, and then generating tubes
4. screen tubes, generating tubes, and then superheater

The major heat loss in an oil-fired boiler is the heat __________.

1. used in the economizer and air heater
2. going up the stack ✓
3. required to change water into steam
4. passing through the boiler casing

Cratering and water tracking in boiler tubes is caused by __________.

1. water trapped between tubes and refractory ✓
2. soot corrosion
3. baked on slag deposits
4. burning a fuel with a high vanadium content

Under normal operating conditions, a drop in the steam temperature leaving an uncontrolled interdeck superheater could be caused by a __________.

1. decrease in steam velocity through the superheater
2. decrease in combustion gas velocity through the superheater ✓
3. badly fouled economizer
4. drop in the feedwater temperature

When operating under constant load, the superheated steam temperature may rise above normal if the __________.

1. excess air is too low
2. feedwater temperature is too high
3. boiler is priming
4. feedwater temperature is too low ✓

Which of the conditions listed would indicate excessive soot buildup on the economizer?

1. High superheater temperature ✓
2. Low air temperature entering the boiler
3. High feedwater temperature entering the boiler
4. Lower than usual air pressure in the furnace

As an engineer of a slow-speed diesel powered vessel, you note that the indicator card diagrams have a flat horizontal profile around TDC. To rectify this, what would be your best course of action?

1. Use a spring with a higher spring constant (k value) in the indicator. ✓
2. Use a spring with a lower spring constant (k value) in the indicator.
3. Increase the RPM at which the readings are taken.
4. Reduce the RPM at which the readings are taken.

When analyzing indicator card diagrams you are calculating the work output from the cylinder by obtaining the area within the curve of what type of diagram?

1. pressure/volume ✓
2. temperature/entropy
3. pressure/temperature
4. pressure/enthalpy

When one cylinder has a lower compression pressure and higher exhaust gas temperature than any of the other engine cylinders, which of the conditions listed will be indicated?

1. Advanced ignition
2. Clogged air intake
3. Leaky exhaust valve ✓
4. High exhaust pressure

Worn diesel engine intake valve guides can result in __________.

1. increased engine breathing efficiency
2. excessive valve lash
3. excessive lube oil consumption ✓
4. lower than normal fuel consumption

One experiences evidence of high temperature corrosion on diesel engine combustion space components. This is exhibited by 'wire drawing' marks on exhaust valves/seats or metal reduction on cylinder heads. What causes this degradation of components?

1. Excessive combustion temperatures.
2. Water contamination of the fuel.
3. Vanadium, sodium and sulfur in the fuel. ✓
4. Improper fuel injection/combustion in cylinders.

The most practical way of detecting an overload in one cylinder of an operating large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is to __________.

1. listen for combustion knock in that cylinder
2. check the cylinder exhaust temperature frequently ✓
3. check the cylinder exhausts for black smoke
4. isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector

Which of the following procedures should be carried out to permit the continued operation of a crosshead engine with a leaky aftercooler?

1. Nothing needs to be done due to the low heating value of heavy fuel.
2. Switch to diesel fuel and run at reduced speed.
3. Blank off the cooling water lines and run at reduced speed. ✓
4. Bypass the aftercooler to operate at sea speed.

A main propulsion diesel engine crankshaft bearing lacking sufficient 'crush', will __________.

1. tend to rotate with the journal ✓
2. be lubricated more easily than with sufficient crush
3. pound under load
4. have a thicker layer of babbitt

In an auxiliary diesel engine, one reason for knurling the piston skirt is to __________.

1. allow for heat expansion
2. transmit forces evenly
3. improve the piston seal
4. improve skirt lubrication ✓

On small diesel engines, a noticeable decrease in the time interval between the replacement of the lube filter cartridge indicates __________.

1. excessive oil temperature
2. piston ring blow-by ✓
3. excessive oil pressure
4. dirty air filter

The pressuretrol which is installed on an auxiliary boiler senses steam pressure changes and __________.

1. controls the flow of feedwater to the boiler
2. monitors the boiler high water level
3. secures the fires when a fusible plug burns out
4. automatically regulates the quantity of oil and air flow to the burner ✓

Provisions for avoiding the buildup of ice on the intake air surfaces of a gas turbine plant can be found where?

1. In the stack intake ducting.
2. In the inlet duct frame at the inlet to the engine.
3. In the exhaust and intake ducting.
4. Both A & B. ✓

In comparing a centrifugal-type to an axial-type compressor, which of the following statements is true?

1. Centrifugal compressors are more expensive to manufacture than an axial compressor.
2. A centrifugal compressor has a lower resistance to FOD than an axial compressor.
3. Centrifugal compressors have a higher compression ratio per stage than an axial flow compressor. ✓
4. Centrifugal compressors have a lower compression ratio per stage than an axial compressor.

While air is being compressed in a centrifugal flow gas turbine, what happens to the direction of air flow?

1. Changes only at the compressor discharge.
2. Changes only at the compressor inlet.
3. Changes at each separate component. ✓
4. Changes only once from inlet to outlet.

Which of the following statements is true regarding centrifugal compressors?

1. Centrifugal compressors are complicated in design and heavy.
2. The impeller of a centrifugal compressor has a radial inlet and axial discharge.
3. The centrifugal compressor is frequently used on small, low power turbines. ✓
4. The efficiency of a centrifugal compressor is greater than that of an axial compressor.

An axial compressor basically consists of which of the following?

1. Rotating pistons and stationary liners.
2. Stationary vanes and rotating blades. ✓
3. A rotating impeller and a stationary diffuser.
4. A stationary impeller and a rotating diffuser.

The purpose of the metal spray rub coating on the rotor and stator casing of an axial-type compressor is which of the following?

1. ensure protection for the gearbox adapter when removing or replacing the bearings
2. control air flow through the compressor
3. provide close vane to rotor and blade to stator case clearances ✓
4. seal the circumferential dovetails

Two functions of the compressor stator vanes include which of the following?

1. Direct air flow to each rotor stage at the correct angle and deliver air to the combustor at the correct velocity and pressure. ✓
2. Direct air flow to rotor blades at the correct angle and are shaped to cause a velocity increase and a pressure decrease.
3. Direct air flow to rotor blades at the correct angle and are shaped to produce a velocity increase and maintain a constant pressure.
4. Direct air flow to rotor blades at the correct angle and are shaped to maintain a constant velocity and produce a pressure increase.

What is the term used to describe the stationary vanes preceding the first stage of an axial compressor?

1. Variable stator vanes.
2. Inlet guide vanes. ✓
3. First stage stator vanes.
4. Variable inlet vanes.

Why are loose-fitting blades used on the first several stages of large axial compressors?

1. To compensate for a malfunctioning compressor support bearing.
2. To compensate for the abrasive action of the blade tips.
3. To minimize vibration while the engine is passing through critical speed ranges. ✓
4. To maintain close tolerances in the compressor.

In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted __________.

1. along the top of the bulkhead
2. at a point that is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead
3. along the bottom of any bulkhead ✓
4. at the vertical center of the bulkhead

Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer than __________.

1. 8 feet
2. 10 feet ✓
3. 16 feet
4. 20 feet

The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.

1. collapsing
2. developing free surface moments
3. developing free surfaces
4. filling completely ✓

Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________.

1. checking fuel oil strainers
2. sounding the tank ✓
3. waiting for the vessel to list
4. examining tank boundaries

Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and _________.

1. pumping out flooded compartments ✓
2. dumping fuel oil
3. transferring reserve feedwater
4. evacuating the engine room

What is a major advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus?

1. Facial hair will not affect the mask performance.
2. The speed with which it can be put into operation is around 45 seconds. ✓
3. The equipment is lightweight and the wearer can work without difficulty in confined spaces.
4. The average operating time is over an hour.

Life jackets should be stowed in __________.

1. the forepeaks
2. the pumproom
3. readily accessible spaces ✓
4. locked watertight containers

Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit?

1. Chemical protection face shield
2. Approved work vest
3. Self-contained breathing apparatus ✓
4. 5 cell approved flashlight

A vessel is equipped with two ship's service generators. Generator No.1 is rated at 900 kW and generator No.2 is rated at 600 kW. During parallel operation, with a hotel load of 1,000 kW, what should be the kW load on generator No.2 if the load is shared proportionately?

1. 100 kW
2. 400 kW ✓
3. 500 kW
4. 600 kW

To properly use a clamp-on type ammeter to check current flow, what must be done FIRST?

1. short the test leads and calibrate the instrument to zero
2. de-energize the circuit to allow connection of the instrument in series
3. hook the jaws of the instrument around the insulated single conductor ✓
4. connect the voltage test leads to the appropriate terminals

Why are external shunts sometimes used with ammeters?

1. to prevent damage to the meter movement from heat generated by the internal shunt ✓
2. to reduce reactive power factor error
3. to permit shunts with larger resistances to be utilized
4. to increase meter sensitivity

What can a typical common analog or digital multimeter be used to measure?

1. voltage, resistance, and current ✓
2. voltage, frequency, and current
3. voltage, power, and current
4. frequency, current, and resistance

Which of the listed statements is correct when using a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter?

1. With the test leads shorted together, a reading of 'zero' ohms will be displayed. ✓
2. With the test leads shorted together, a reading of 'OL' ohms will be displayed.
3. With the test leads apart insulated from each other, a reading of 'zero' ohms will be displayed.
4. It is usually not possible for a digital multimeter to be set up as an ohmmeter.

Under what circumstance would a hand-held portable phase sequence indicator be used should the main switchboard mounted fixed phase sequence indicator be inoperative?

1. paralleling alternators
2. replacing a defective solenoid
3. installing a new synchroscope
4. preparing to make the shore power connection ✓

By what means should motor controller contacts be routinely cleaned?

1. filing with a bastard file
2. dressing with crocus cloth
3. blowing with compressed air
4. wiping with a clean dry cloth ✓

If the contacts of a motor starter or controller fail to drop out when the 'stop' button is depressed, what could be the cause?

1. stop contacts have become welded together ✓
2. stop contacts are carrying insufficient current
3. starter shading coil is loose
4. starter shading coil is broken

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning Azipod propulsion systems?

1. The pod assembly swivels on a horizontal axis.
2. The system requires the use of a controllable-pitch propeller.
3. The system requires the need for a separate rudder.
4. The system integrates propulsion and steering into one function. ✓

What statement is TRUE concerning the Azipod propulsion system?

1. It is an electric drive system in which the motor drives a controllable-pitch propeller (CPP).
2. It is an electric drive system where the propulsion motor is installed in a submerged housing capable of swiveling. ✓
3. It is an electric drive system that incorporates a DC motor.
4. It is an electric drive system using water jets.